A short time ago I wrote an article about the Old and New Testaments, three articles in fact. I thought they were precise and clear, but apparently was mistaken. There was an article, which you may or may not have read, entitled, “In Defense of Biblical Truth” and written as a response to my article and some other article that I have not seen and certainly did not write, though their article does not make that clear. The defense of Biblical truth is important, which is the reason for the articles I write and the reason for the article to which these men objected. I don’t know if they read all three of my articles or just one, since they don’t say in their response. What I do know is that they say that my article, “seemed to attempt to destroy the value of the Old Testament in our Bibles.” Within the same paragraph as the above quote their response says, “It is true that salvation is no longer obtainable through the ‘Old Testament Law and Ordinances,’ (moral, civil, or religious)....” I thought that this latter idea and not the former was the very idea that my own articles had covered. Though the accusation is made that my article, “was written as if all the Old Testament was completely fulfilled, and would seem to suggest that we had no further need of it in our day”, there is not anywhere a single quote from my article to substantiate the claim.
I do firmly believe that the Old Testament is “completely fulfilled”, but that does not mean that I do not believe it is the inspired Word of God, nor does it mean that I don’t believe that it is a valuable portion of our Bibles, nor that we have no further need of it today. I should think that would be clear from the fact that I quoted from or referred to 5 different sections of Old Testament scripture and used them just as 2 Timothy 3:16 says, “for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:”, but I suppose not. Romans 15:4 says, “For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope.” There is no doubt that the Old Testament is scripture, and no doubt that we are to learn from it even though we are not saved by it or under that law any longer.
The only real argument in the entire response deals with whether the prophecy of the Old Testament has already been fulfilled or is yet to be fulfilled. Only one supposed proof that it has not been fulfilled is given even though we are to believe that there are “too many” to put in the article. The one prophecy they mention is Zechariah 12:10 "And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn." The argument is made that since “They never mourned, they mocked. There was no bitterness but hatred. They killed him.” this scripture has not been fulfilled. Of course, I believe that the Bible teaches that it was fulfilled. So, let’s see.
First, since the Old Testament, including Zechariah, is inspired by God we should start with the immediate context. Certainly we could look at the whole chapter or even the whole book, and perhaps we will in another article. For now let us just examine the few verses around this one. Zechariah 12:9-13:1 says, "And it shall come to pass in that day, that I will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem. {10} And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn. {11} In that day shall there be a great mourning in Jerusalem, as the mourning of Hadadrimmon in the valley of Megiddon. {12} And the land shall mourn, every family apart; the family of the house of David apart, and their wives apart; the family of the house of Nathan apart, and their wives apart; {13} The family of the house of Levi apart, and their wives apart; the family of Shimei apart, and their wives apart; {14} All the families that remain, every family apart, and their wives apart." (13:1) "In that day there shall be a fountain opened to the house of David and to the inhabitants of Jerusalem for sin and for uncleanness."
Many of these verses speak of ‘that day’, but what day? There are several clues. Verse ten itself says that God will pour out his ‘spirit of grace’. Chapter 13 and verse one says, there will be a fountain opened for sin. Verse ten also says that they will ‘look on me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him,’. All of these things are to happen in that day. So, if I may be so bold as to ask, which day (past, present, or future) did, are, or will all three of these things happen. Try this answer if you don’t have one of your own, or compare this one to the one you came up with. God poured (past) out his grace and the spirit of his grace on the day that he opened (past) a fountain for the forgiveness of sin, the same day that the inhabitants of Jerusalem looked upon me (Jesus) whom they had pierced.
Second, John 19:34-37 clearly says that the piercing part took place on the day Jesus died on the cross and all of the rest was to be on the same day the prophecy said ‘that day’. It should also be noted that even though there were many who mocked, hated, and schemed to kill Jesus; those who were the remnant who remained faithful did mourn at the death of Christ. Jesus during his life had made it clear that not everyone who called himself a child of Abraham, or of the house of David, or a Jew was really and truly one (John 8:39-44).